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Re: [Scheme-reports] EQV? on numbers should be based on operational equivalence
Per Bothner scripsit:
> Why? If two number written out to bytevectors (or binary files in general)
> have different bit-patterns, they're not operationally equivalent, and
> they're not eqv?. What is the problem?
By the same token, two numbers that are = and have the same exactness,
but aren't EQ?, shouldn't be operationally equivalent either -- which means
EQV? reduces to EQ?. There have to be boundaries drawn somewhere.
Almost all theorems are true, John Cowan <cowan@x>
but almost all proofs have bugs. http://www.ccil.org/~cowan
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